1Ps 51:5; Job 14:4; 15:14; Jn 3:6

We saw earlier that Original Sin comprises the imputed guilt of Adam’s first transgression as well as a sin nature inherited from him. The direct emphasis of the present Q&A, is how this original sin came to be ours.

In a way, we have already answered this question in our commentary on WLC 22, when we explain what the answer mean by the fact that we "sinned in [Adam], and fell with him in that first transgression." We saw that we are sinners, i.e. have original sin, partly because Adam was our covenant representative, and partly because he was the common natural father of all mankind. As such all children born in this world are sinners the minute they are conceived in the womb of their mothers. This is what David means when he says: "Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother conceive me" (Ps 51:5).

Human babies,—though appearing very adorable, harmless and innocent,—are naturally children of wrath and sinners by guilt and nature. They need not be taught to sin. They will naturally know how to sin on account of original sin. Sinful behaviour is not acquired by external influence, as some unbelieving sociologists may insist. No, sinful behaviour has its roots in original sin.

But what about the Lord Jesus? The Scripture affirms that He was tempted at all points like as we are and yet without sin (Heb 4:15). If He had sin, original or actual, He would be disqualified from being the substitutionary sacrifice for our sins. But then the Scripture also affirms that he is fully human (Heb 2:14-16). If he is not fully human, how could he represent us? But if he is fully human, how is it that He is without original sin? This answer to this question is the indirect purpose of the present Q&A.

And again, we have in a way answered this question when we explained why WLC 22 use the phrase "by natural generation." We saw that the Lord Jesus did not have original sin because he was not a child of Adam by natural generation. He was not guilty in Adam because it is clear from various examples in the Scripture that God regards fathers rather than mothers as covenant representatives, and when He in any way imputes guilt down the generation, it is through the fathers (see for example Ex 20:5). As the Lord was conceived and born not by natural generation, but virginally, he was therefore not guilty in Adam.

But does not the Scripture say: "Who can bring a clean thing out of an unclean? not one" (Job 14:4); and "What is man, that he should be clean? and he which is born of a woman, that he should be righteous?" (Job 15:14).

Although the Lord was not conceived and born of natural generation, yet he was born of a sinful woman, how is it that he does not have a sin nature? It is so because He was preserved from this corruption by the power of the Holy Spirit overshadowing his earthly mother at his conception. This is what the angel said unto her: "The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God" (Lk 1:35).

It is important for us to bear this last point in mind as we hear of rumours and speculations about human cloning. Though we do not believe it is possible fully to clone human beings and that it is a terribly wicked endeavour, we must assert that our catechism cannot be taken to teach that cloned babies are void of original sin because they are not conceived and born by natural generation.